carlyhauser6705 carlyhauser6705
  • 24-07-2020
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What territory did the Spanish Empire have in the 1750?

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meatjuicer3000
meatjuicer3000 meatjuicer3000
  • 24-07-2020

Answer:

the Asian archipelago of the Philippines, what they called "The Indies"

this information was gathered from Wikipedia

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