Answer: No they are not inverses.
Step-by-step explanation:
If they are inverses, then the inverse of f(x) will equal g(x).
[tex]y=\dfrac{1}{x+4}-9\\\\\\\text{Swap the x's and y's:}\\x=\dfrac{1}{y+4}-9\\\\\\\text{Solve for y:}\\x+9=\dfrac{1}{y+4}\\\\y+4=\dfrac{1}{x+9}\\\\y=\dfrac{1}{x+9}-4[/tex]
f⁻¹(x) ≠ g(x) so they are not inverses
